A divided difference inequality for n-convex functions

For a₍₁₎ ? a₍₂₎ ? ··· ? a_(n) ? 0, b₍₁₎ ? b₍₂₎ ? ··· ? b_(n) ? 0, the ordered values of a_i, b_i, i = 1, 2,…, n, m fixed, m ? n, and p ? 1 it is shown that

$\text{∑}\text{1}\text{n}\text{a}{}_{\mathrm{i}}\text{b}{}_{\mathrm{i}}\text{?}\text{∑}\text{1}\text{m}\text{a}{}^{\mathrm{p}}{}_{\mathrm{(i)}}{}^{\mathrm{<mtext>1</mtext><mtext>p</mtext>}}\text{∑}\text{1}\text{m?k?1}\text{b}{}^{\mathrm{q}}{}_{\mathrm{(i)}}\text{+}\text{b}{}^{\mathrm{q}}{}_{\mathrm{m?k]}}\text{(k+1)}{}^{\mathrm{<mtext>q</mtext><mtext>p</mtext>}}{}^{\mathrm{<mtext>1</mtext><mtext>q</mtext>}}$

where $\text{1}\text{p}\text{+}\text{1}\text{q}\text{= 1, b}{}_{\mathrm{j]}}\text{= b}{}_{\mathrm{(j)}}\text{+ b}{}_{\mathrm{(j\; +\; 1)}}\text{+ ··· + b}{}_{\mathrm{(n)}}\text{,}\text{and}\text{k}$ is the integer such that $\text{b}{}_{\mathrm{(m\; ?\; k\; ?\; 1)}}\text{?}\text{bm ? k]}\text{(k + 1)}$ and $\text{b}{}_{\mathrm{(m\; ?\; k)}}\text{<}\text{b}{}_{\mathrm{m\; ?\; k\; +\; 1]}}\text{k}$. The inequality is shown to be sharp. When p < 1 and a_(i)'s are in increasing order then the inequality is reversed.